One-Dimensional Box of electrons

What does this question even mean? How to approach this?
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45 Replies
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Opt
Opt5mo ago
I was wondering. Well, we can assume that since there are four electrons, they'll inhabit two energy levels, with two in each degenerate level (because spin)
SirLancelotDuLac
SirLancelotDuLacOP5mo ago
Ah I see. Because of Pauli's exclusion principle right?
Opt
Opt5mo ago
Mhm Now, the ground state is that in which you have nodes on either end, antinode in the centre I forgot the energy of standing waves, so I gotta revise, but that gives you E0 The second state will have a single node at the centre Treat it like standing waves essentially
SirLancelotDuLac
SirLancelotDuLacOP5mo ago
Okay, so the standing waves correspond to Like how it would be in an organ pipe?
Opt
Opt5mo ago
No, wait String This is string Closed on both sides
SirLancelotDuLac
SirLancelotDuLacOP5mo ago
Okay. Will try this with this approach.
Sephrina
Sephrina5mo ago
physics que be like: one dimension box
iTeachChem
iTeachChem5mo ago
this is in Zumdahl too btw
Opt
Opt5mo ago
It's a classic QM situation
Sephrina
Sephrina5mo ago
oo damn
Gamertug
Gamertug5mo ago
whats QM?
Opt
Opt5mo ago
Quantum Mechanics
iTeachChem
iTeachChem5mo ago
Yea this is intro to this topic Before you do Schrödinger
Opt
Opt5mo ago
Though there you'd use Schrödinger to find the unitary time evolution
CorrodedCoffin
CorrodedCoffin5mo ago
@SirLancelotDuLac how much of this paper were u able to solve
SirLancelotDuLac
SirLancelotDuLacOP5mo ago
Its not very tough, and yeah doable. Some questions are a little tough but Surely not allen aiots type stuff.
CorrodedCoffin
CorrodedCoffin5mo ago
looks like i need to revise then lol were u able to do ques 1 fluids+shm wala
SirLancelotDuLac
SirLancelotDuLacOP5mo ago
That was dimensional analysis na? Yeah.
CorrodedCoffin
CorrodedCoffin5mo ago
oh lol i didnt read completely . i sensed fluids and ran away will try again ig
SirLancelotDuLac
SirLancelotDuLacOP5mo ago
Me in conics :sweaty:
CorrodedCoffin
CorrodedCoffin5mo ago
lol same
Opt
Opt5mo ago
@SirLancelotDuLac solved? Or should I send sol?
SirLancelotDuLac
SirLancelotDuLacOP5mo ago
Please do, I'm still clueless ;_;
Opt
Opt5mo ago
Just a moment Heck , this is single correct
Opt
Opt5mo ago
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Opt
Opt5mo ago
No description
Opt
Opt5mo ago
My handwriting is a mess Ask if you don't get something Also, technically it's the partial second derivative but we're in 1D, and not considering time evolution, so it's not important
CorrodedCoffin
CorrodedCoffin5mo ago
sorry if it doesnt belong here but is there any youtube channel or smthing which will upload solutions to all three papers. prashant jain uploaded solns for maths
Opt
Opt5mo ago
Not sure.
SirLancelotDuLac
SirLancelotDuLacOP5mo ago
Can this be done without knowing schrodinger equation? Okay, I get the gist of the solution... But also how do we write the energy for the obtained wave?
Opt
Opt5mo ago
Uhhh using standing waves I presume, but I have completely forgotten energy of standing waves so....
SirLancelotDuLac
SirLancelotDuLacOP5mo ago
But that has terms of linear mass density and stuff.
Opt
Opt5mo ago
Oh
SirLancelotDuLac
SirLancelotDuLacOP5mo ago
Ah, but I get the solution now. Can I send one more similar doubt in this thread?
Opt
Opt5mo ago
Sure
SirLancelotDuLac
SirLancelotDuLacOP5mo ago
Okay, I couldn't find the exact question, so take with a grain of salt, but the question was something like this: We can consider matter to be a matter-wave that behaves similar to normal waves. Now consider an incline, with a matter wave going from A to D. One of the waves takes the path via C while the other via B. What is the phase difference between the two waves? (Dimensions of wedge are known)
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Opt
Opt5mo ago
You can just take path difference and multiply by 2πp/h right?
SirLancelotDuLac
SirLancelotDuLacOP5mo ago
Path difference here should be zero here right?
Opt
Opt5mo ago
Is the answer not zero?
SirLancelotDuLac
SirLancelotDuLacOP5mo ago
Nope. Wait Imma try to find the actual question tho...
integralofe^2v
integralofe^2v5mo ago
Yes just use lambda=2L/n for standing wave condition then put that lambda in de broglie equation to get momentum and put that momentum in E=p^2/2m to get energy which yields same result i belive
SirLancelotDuLac
SirLancelotDuLacOP5mo ago
I see. Momentum by h/lambda and mass of electron. Yep that works. +solved @Opt @integralofe^2x
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