13 Replies
@Apu
Note for OP
+solved @user1 @user2... to close the thread when your doubt is solved. Mention the users who helped you solve the doubt. This will be added to their stats.Okay one thing that hit me: Send the cos^2 term in denominator inside the bracket and write the above stuff as xcos(x)+1-1-secxtanx Now write it as (x-secx)cosx+(1-secx.tanx)
So this becomes $e^{g(x)}(f(x).g'(x)+f'(x))$
SirLancelotDuLac
The integral of which is (e^g(x)).f(x)
$I don't give a meow anymore$
Enamine
Wow
How horrible this is ðŸ˜
(sorry for doing it on this thread hardcore bhai 🙂)
WOW
literally crazy
how did u even think of that
dw man the feelings mutual
x=theta in terms of ques
f(x) is this
Which basically simplified to e^sin(x)/cos(x)
Then its an Aod question
yeahh
+solved @SirLancelotDuLac
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