integration
not really a doubt but is it advisable to just put a=1 (in exam not whilst practicing ofc ) and solve the integral (ik 0<a<1) . it comes out to be something/0 form which is only achievable with option C. this makes the ques much much more easier
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@Apu
Note for OP
+solved @user1 @user2... to close the thread when your doubt is solved. Mention the users who helped you solve the doubt. This will be added to their stats.otherwise its a pretty lengthy ques
putting a=1 gives us 2(1-cos(theta))=4(sin^2(theta/2)) which is csc^2 ka integral with 0 as a bound which tends to infinity
Ye this works. But in some cases it may be misleading.
Like ln(sin(x))
You might think it tends to -infinity near 0, but its definite integral exists. (from 0 to pi/2)
So just try to look at it carefully
topmost step tak mera bhi aa gya tha . uske baad toh samjh hi ni aaya kya kara
Gahh I've solved it somewhere but it was soo long ago it will be hard to find that thread. :/
i used another approach to solve
got it tho
thanx
+solved @SirLancelotDuLac
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