conductors and electrostatic shielding
in this q, it specifically asks for the field due to q. why will it be 0 in the conductor body (region 2)? cuz if im not mistaken, the region 2 field becoming zero is like the net effect right? like charges on the conductor redistribute (uniqueness theorem) such that the field inside the conductor (net) is zero but individually it'll be non zero.
does this make sense? if not whats the ight logic i dont get it.
does this make sense? if not whats the ight logic i dont get it.
